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AMC Standard Pathway · Last updated November 2026

AMC CAT MCQ Examination (Australian Medical Council): free practice test

The first exam on the AMC Standard Pathway for international medical graduates. One computer-adaptive session of 150 single-best-answer questions at the level of a graduating Australian medical student: adult medicine (30%), adult surgery (20%), and women's health, child health, mental health, and population health and ethics (12.5% each). Results come three weeks after the exam.

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About the AMC CAT MCQ exam

The first exam on the AMC Standard Pathway for international medical graduates. One computer-adaptive session of 150 single-best-answer questions at the level of a graduating Australian medical student: adult medicine (30%), adult surgery (20%), and women's health, child health, mental health, and population health and ethics (12.5% each). Results come three weeks after the exam.

What's on the exam

AMC CAT MCQ
Adult Health: Medicine
7 key facts
Adult Health: Surgery
7 key facts
Women's Health: Obstetrics and Gynaecology
6 key facts
Child Health
6 key facts
Mental Health
7 key facts
Population Health and Ethics
7 key facts

Each branch is a topic in the official outline. Members see every key fact on the full mind map. Read the free study guide →

How to pass the AMC CAT MCQ exam

  • 150 questions in 3.5 hours is 84 seconds each. You can't skip or go back, so commit to your best answer and move on.
  • Answer all 150. The AMC warns that an incomplete exam can end as "Fail - insufficient data to obtain result". There is no negative marking, so never leave time on a blank.
  • Adult medicine and surgery are half the exam. The other half is four equal blocks: women's health, child health, mental health, and population health and ethics. Don't neglect the last one.
  • Answer as an Australian intern would: Australian guidelines, drug names (adrenaline, paracetamol), PBS-style prescribing and SI units. The real exam has five options per question; ours have four.

Save your results and get your Readiness Score

Create a free account after the test: your score by topic, a mistakes bank, the complete study notes for the first topic, flashcards and the High-Yield Values Sheet.

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What's in the premium AMC CAT MCQ prep

Premium AMC CAT MCQ prep is studied one topic at a time. Each step starts with that topic's key notes and flashcard deck, then its own question sets of 25, so you master one topic before you move to the next. When every topic is strong, the 6 full mock exams show you're ready.

3,000practice questions, every answer explained
6full-length mock exams, 150 questions each, timed
800flashcards with spaced repetition, sorted by topic
60comprehensive key notes across 6 topics

Your step-by-step study path

  1. 1
    Adult Health: Medicine10 key notes, 135 flashcards, then 500 practice questions in 20 sets of 25
    Notes free with an account
  2. 2
    Adult Health: Surgery10 key notes, 135 flashcards, then 500 practice questions in 20 sets of 25
    Premium
  3. 3
    Women's Health: Obstetrics and Gynaecology10 key notes, 135 flashcards, then 500 practice questions in 20 sets of 25
    Premium
  4. 4
    Child Health10 key notes, 135 flashcards, then 500 practice questions in 20 sets of 25
    Premium
  5. 5
    Mental Health10 key notes, 130 flashcards, then 500 practice questions in 20 sets of 25
    Premium
  6. 6
    Population Health and Ethics10 key notes, 130 flashcards, then 500 practice questions in 20 sets of 25
    Premium
  7. Final step: 6 full mock exams150 questions each, timed like test day. Pass them, then book your exam.
    Premium
Free with an account

Read the complete AMC CAT MCQ study notes for “Adult Health: Medicine”

Our first full set of comprehensive notes, about 18 minutes of reading: How medicine questions are built · Emergencies to recognise in seconds · Cardiovascular · Respiratory · Endocrine and renal · Answer the Australian way, a worked exam example, the traps examiners use and a one-minute recap. Create a free account to read it and see how premium notes work before you decide.

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Study tools included

3,000 practice questions

3,000 exam-style questions per exam, organized topic by topic in sets of 25. Every answer explained, with the rule it comes from.

6 full mock exams

6 full-length timed mock exams per exam, with real question counts and time limits, so test day feels like practice day.

Exam Readiness Score

One 0 to 100 number that tells you when you're ready to book. Reach 80 and you're covered by our Pass Guarantee.

800 flashcards + spaced repetition

800 flashcards per exam, in a deck for each topic, that come back right before you'd forget them. Five minutes a day keeps every number fresh.

60 comprehensive key notes

60 key notes per exam, split across its topics and each explained in full: the concepts, worked exam examples, the traps examiners use and a quick recap. Your first set is free with an account.

Mind maps

See the whole exam on one screen: every topic and the facts under it.

Sample questions with answers

These are the questions in the free test above, with answers. Try the test first. You'll learn more by getting some wrong.

1. A 34-year-old man is stung by a bee. Within minutes he has generalised urticaria, wheeze and a blood pressure of 80/45 mmHg. He weighs 80 kg. What is the most appropriate first treatment?
Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 mg/mL) intramuscularly into the anterolateral thigh. This is anaphylaxis. ASCIA's first-line treatment is IM adrenaline 0.01 mg/kg up to 0.5 mg (0.5 mL of 1 mg/mL) into the outer mid-thigh, repeated every 5 minutes if needed, with the patient lying flat. Steroids and antihistamines don't treat airway or circulatory compromise, and sedating antihistamines such as promethazine can worsen hypotension.
2. A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 7.2 mmol/L. His ECG shows peaked T waves and a widening QRS complex. What should be given first?
Answer: Intravenous calcium gluconate. With ECG changes, the first step is to stabilise the myocardium with IV calcium (10 mL of 10% calcium gluconate, repeated if the ECG doesn't improve). It acts within minutes but doesn't lower potassium. Then shift potassium into cells (insulin with glucose, salbutamol) and remove it (resins, diuretics or dialysis).
3. A 72-year-old woman has newly diagnosed non-valvular atrial fibrillation. She has treated hypertension and no other medical history. Her renal function is normal. Under the Australian AF guideline, what is the most appropriate stroke prevention?
Answer: A non-vitamin K oral anticoagulant such as apixaban. The NHFA/CSANZ guideline uses CHA2DS2-VA, which leaves out sex. She scores 2 (age 65 to 74 = 1, hypertension = 1), and a score of 2 or more means oral anticoagulation is recommended, with a NOAC preferred over warfarin in non-valvular AF. Aspirin isn't recommended for stroke prevention in AF.
4. A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes had a myocardial infarction last year. He takes metformin 1 g twice daily. His HbA1c is 8.0% (64 mmol/mol) and his eGFR is 70 mL/min/1.73 m². Which added medicine is most appropriate?
Answer: Empagliflozin. With established cardiovascular disease, the Australian type 2 diabetes algorithm recommends adding an SGLT2 inhibitor or a GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven cardiovascular benefit, whatever the HbA1c. Empagliflozin reduces cardiovascular death and heart failure admissions. Sulfonylureas, DPP-4 inhibitors and pioglitazone lower glucose but lack that benefit, and pioglitazone can worsen heart failure.
5. A 74-year-old man collapses with sudden severe abdominal pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 78/40 mmHg, and a tender pulsatile mass is felt in the epigastrium. He is known to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Immediate transfer to theatre for vascular repair, with permissive hypotension. A known AAA with back pain, shock and a pulsatile mass is a ruptured aneurysm until proven otherwise. An unstable patient goes straight to theatre (open or endovascular repair); CT is only for stable patients. Resuscitate to a lower target (permissive hypotension) because restoring normal pressure can worsen bleeding.
6. A 25-year-old woman inverts her ankle playing netball. Under the Ottawa ankle rules, which finding means an ankle X-ray is required?
Answer: Bone tenderness at the posterior edge of the distal 6 cm of the lateral malleolus. An ankle X-ray is needed if there is malleolar pain plus either bone tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the distal 6 cm of the lateral or medial malleolus, or inability to bear weight for four steps both immediately and in the emergency department. Swelling, bruising and pain on movement are not part of the rules.
7. A 14-year-old boy has had sudden severe left scrotal pain for 3 hours, with vomiting. The left testis is high-riding and lies horizontally, and the cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Urgent surgical exploration of the scrotum. This is testicular torsion on clinical grounds. Salvage falls sharply after about 6 hours, so a high clinical suspicion means urgent exploration (with bilateral fixation) without waiting for imaging. Ultrasound is for equivocal cases and must never delay surgery.
8. A 26-year-old Rh D-negative woman in her first pregnancy is seen at 28 weeks. Her antibody screen shows no anti-D, and the fetal Rh D status is unknown. What does Australian guidance recommend?
Answer: Routine anti-D 625 IU at 28 weeks and again at 34 weeks. Routine antenatal prophylaxis for Rh D-negative women without preformed anti-D is 625 IU IM at 28 and 34 weeks, plus a dose within 72 hours after any sensitising event and after birth if the baby is Rh D positive. Silent fetomaternal haemorrhage in the third trimester can sensitise a first pregnancy.
9. A 30-year-old woman had a cervical screening test 2 years ago that showed oncogenic HPV not detected. She has no symptoms. When is her next routine cervical screening test due?
Answer: In 3 years, 5 years after the last test. The National Cervical Screening Program tests for HPV every 5 years from 25 to 74 when the result is HPV not detected. She can choose a clinician-collected or self-collected sample. Symptoms such as abnormal bleeding need diagnostic tests, not screening.
10. A 2-year-old has a barking cough and a hoarse voice after 2 days of coryza. Stridor is heard only when he is upset, there is no chest wall recession and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: A single dose of oral dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg and discharge with advice. This is mild croup (no stridor at rest, no increased work of breathing). A single dose of oral dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg (or prednisolone 1 mg/kg) reduces symptoms and return visits. Nebulised adrenaline is for severe croup, croup is viral so antibiotics don't help, and salbutamol has no role.
11. An 18-week-old girl who has had no vaccines is brought for catch-up immunisation. Under the Australian Immunisation Handbook, which vaccine should she NOT be given?
Answer: Oral rotavirus vaccine. Rotavirus vaccine has strict upper age limits: the first dose must be given by 14 weeks of age (14 weeks and 6 days for Rotarix), because of the small risk of intussusception in older infants. At 18 weeks she is too old to start it, but all the other vaccines should be caught up.
12. A 45-year-old woman with bipolar disorder has taken lithium for years with stable levels. Two weeks ago her GP started a new medicine. She now has vomiting, a coarse tremor, ataxia and confusion. Which new medicine is most likely responsible?
Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide. Thiazide diuretics reduce renal lithium clearance and can raise levels by 25% or more, causing toxicity. ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs and dehydration do the same. Coarse tremor, ataxia, vomiting and confusion are classic features: check a lithium level and renal function, and stop the lithium.
13. A 38-year-old man taking sertraline is given tramadol for back pain. Within 24 hours he is agitated and sweating, with a temperature of 38.5 °C, dilated pupils, hyperreflexia and inducible ankle clonus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Serotonin toxicity. Two serotonergic drugs (an SSRI plus tramadol), rapid onset, and clonus with agitation and sweating meet the Hunter criteria for serotonin toxicity. NMS follows antipsychotics, develops over days and causes lead-pipe rigidity with slow reflexes. Anticholinergic toxicity causes dry, hot skin. Malignant hyperthermia follows volatile anaesthetics or suxamethonium.
14. A screening test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%. It is used in a population of 10,000 where the disease prevalence is 1%. What is the positive predictive value, approximately?
Answer: 15%. 100 people have the disease: 90 test positive (true positives). 9,900 don't: 5% of them, 495, test positive (false positives). PPV = 90 ÷ (90 + 495) = about 15%. When prevalence is low, most positive results are false positives, even with a good test.
15. A 15-year-old girl asks her GP for the oral contraceptive pill and asks that her parents not be told. Her boyfriend is 16, the relationship is consensual and there are no signs of coercion or abuse. She understands the risks and benefits. What is the most appropriate approach?
Answer: Prescribe and keep the consultation confidential, as she is a competent mature minor. Under the Gillick principle, accepted in Australian law, a minor who understands the nature and consequences of a treatment can consent to it. Her confidentiality should be kept, while encouraging her to involve her parents and checking for coercion or abuse. Mandatory reporting would apply if there were reasonable grounds to suspect abuse.

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Certification guide

AMC CAT MCQ exam guide (2026): The AMC CAT MCQ is the first exam on the Australian Medical Council's Standard Pathway for international medical graduates. It tests medical knowledge and clinical reasoning at the level of a graduating Australian medical student, in 150 single-best-answer questions over 3.5 hours. From 2026 the AMC slightly raised the pass standard. Here's how the exam works and how to plan for it.

AMC CAT MCQ exam FAQ

How many questions are on the AMC CAT MCQ exam?

150 multiple-choice questions, each with one best answer from five options, with a time limit of 3.5 hours. Format: closed book, computer adaptive (cat); no going back to review or change an answer.

What is the passing score for AMC CAT MCQ?

A scaled score of 250 on the AMC's 0 to 500 scale. From 2026 the AMC slightly raised the standard behind that score; the reported pass mark is still 250.

How much does the AMC CAT MCQ exam cost?

A$2,920 per attempt (CAT MCQ authorisation, 2026), after the A$642 initial AMC portfolio fee. AMC fees are reviewed from time to time, so confirm on the AMC website before you pay.

Which languages is the AMC CAT MCQ exam offered in?

English.

Where do I take the AMC CAT MCQ exam?

Pearson VUE test centres in Australia and overseas (no remote option).

Is this AMC CAT MCQ practice test free?

Yes. The 15-question practice test on this page is free, with an explanation for every answer and no signup. A free account also unlocks the complete study notes for the first topic. The full AMC CAT MCQ prep is Premium at A$217 a month for this exam.

What's in the premium AMC CAT MCQ prep?

3,000 practice questions organized topic by topic (Adult Health: Medicine: 500; Adult Health: Surgery: 500; Women's Health: Obstetrics and Gynaecology: 500; Child Health: 500; Mental Health: 500; Population Health and Ethics: 500), 6 full-length timed mock exams of 150 questions, 800 flashcards and 60 comprehensive key notes split across all 6 topics, plus a mistakes bank and the Readiness Score.

Related practice tests

Exam details are summarized from the official candidate information available in November 2026. the Australian Medical Council changes formats and fees, so confirm with Australian Medical Council (AMC) before you book. AMCMCQBank is not affiliated with the Australian Medical Council or Pearson VUE.

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